Indian Polity & Constitution MCQs

1. 73rd Amendment of the Constitution of India, is related to which among the following?

[A] Townships
[B] Panchayats
[C] Municipalities
[D] District Boards

Ans: B [Panchayats]

Notes:73rd Constitutional Amendment 1992 provided the present shape to the Panchayati Raj System. Now the Panchayati Raj Institutions in most of the States have been set up at three levels, village, intermediate and district levels. But in smaller States having a population of less than 20 lakh, there are only two tiers, the village level and the district level.

2. Who was the first Chief election commissioner of India ?

[A] KVK Sundaram
[B] SP Sen Verma
[C] Sukumar Sen
[D] Rajmannar

Answer: C [Sukumar Sen]

Notes: Sukumar Sen (1898–1963) was an officer of the Indian Civil Services (ICS). He was first Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) of India, serving from 21 March 1950 to 19 December 1958. Two general elections viz. 1951–52 and in 1957 were administered under his watch.

3. Which of the following states of India were Union Territories before becoming states ?

[A] Himachal Pradesh, & Tripura
[B] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura
[C] Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim & Tripura
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [Himachal Pradesh, Manipur and Tripura]

Notes: Five current states viz. Goa, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Tripura and Mizoram were union territories before becoming full-fledged states. Goa became state in 1987, Himachal Pradesh in 1971, Manipur and Tripura in 1972 and Mizoram became state in 1987.
Sikkim had become a Protectorate in 1974 and it was given full statehood in 1974 under 35th amendment. Jammu & Kashmir is the only state in India which has been converted to two two Union Territories.

4. Which among the following is NOT a fundamental duty of a citizen?

[A] Respect for the constitution
[B] Respect for the National Flag
[C] Respect for the National Anthem
[D] Respect for the government

Answer: D [Respect for the government]

Notes: Respect for the government of the day is not a fundamental duty as such.

5. Hindi comes under in which of the following categories?

[A] National Language of India
[B] Mother Tongue of India
[C] Official Language of India
[D] Oldest Language of India

Answer: C [Official Language of India]

Notes: Hindi which is also listed in the eighth schedule of the constitution of India comes under the official language of India category.

6. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution deals with constitution of which of the following commissions?

[A] Law commission
[B] Election commission
[C] Finance Commission
[D] Delimitation Commission

Answer: C [Finance Commission]

Notes: According to the article 280 of the Indian Constitution, the President shall constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary.

7. Dr. BR Ambedkar was elected to constituent assembly of undivided India from which among the following ?

[A] United provinces
[B] West Bengal
[C] The Bombay Presidency
[D] Punjab

Answer: B [West Bengal]

Notes: The Constituent Assembly of undivided India which had met for first time on 9th December 1946 was convened to meet on 14th August 1947; and at that point, it became the Sovereign Constituent Assembly for divided India (Dominion of India). At that point, the members representing Bengal, Punjab, Sind, NWFP, etc. which went to Pakistan now, ceased to be members of the Constituent Assembly. In this process Dr. B.R. Ambedkar who had been elected from Bengal lost his seat. Later, he was elected by Bombay Legislative Congress Party as member of Constituent Assembly.

8. Which among the following is the most important condition to decide for the validity of nomination of a College student, who seeks to be elected to the Municipal Council of his / her City?

[A] He / she obtains permission from the Principal of his College
[B] He / she is a member of a Political Party
[C] His / her name figures in the Voter’s List
[D] He / she submits a declaration owing allegiance of the Constitution of India

Answer: C [His / her name figures in the Voter’s List]

Notes: The most important condition to decide for the validity of nomination of a College student, who seeks to be elected to the Municipal Council of his / her City is that the name of the student should figure in Voter list.

9. Which of the following is the meaning of the word “secular”?

[A] Keeping away from all religions
[B] Belief in one God
[C] Freedom of religion and worship to all citizens
[D] Practising different religions

Answer: B [Belief in one God]

Notes: The word secular means not subject to or bound by religious rule or not belonging to or living in a monastic or other order. Secular means non-religious. A secular religion is a communal belief system that often rejects or neglects the metaphysical aspects of the supernatural, commonly associated with traditional religion, instead placing typical religious qualities in earthly entities.

10. Which among the following committee is known for recommending a 3-tier Panchayati Raj System which includes Zila Parishad at the District Level, Panchayat Samiti at the Block/ Tehsil/ Taluka Level and Gram Panchayat at the Village Level?

[A] Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
[B] Ashok Mehta Committee
[C] GVK Rao Committee
[D] Sarkaria Commission

Answer: A [Balwant Rai Mehta Committee]

Notes: Balwant Rai Mehta Committee is known for recommending a 3-tier Panchayati Raj System which includes Zila Parishad at the District Level, Panchayat Samiti at the Block/ Tehsil/ Taluka Level and Gram Panchayat at the Village Level.

11. Which of the following Constitution Amendment Act grants citizens a fundamental right to form cooperative societies?

[A] 95th
[B] 96th
[C] 97th
[D] 98th

Answer: C [97th]

Notes: Constitution (97^th) Amendment Act, 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-operative societies. This amendment made the following three changes in the constitution:

It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19)
It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-B).
It added a new Part IX-B in the constitution which is entitled as “The Co-operative societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).

12. In which year Indian National Congress put forward the demand for a Constituent Assembly?

[A] 1929
[B] 1935
[C] 1932
[D] 1946

Answer: B [1935]

Notes: The Indian National Congress for the first time in the year 1935 officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. And in the year 1938 Jawaharlal Nehru declared that the Constitution of India should be framed without any outside interference.

13. Which article of the Indian Constitution reflects that it Constitution is neither rigid nor flexible but a synthesis of both?

[A] Article 350
[B] Article 362
[C] Article 368
[D] Article 344

Answer: C [Article 368]

Notes: A constitution is considered rigid if it requires a special procedure for its amendment. On the other hand flexible constitution can be amended in the same manner as the ordinary laws are made. Article 368 provides for two types of amendments. Some provisions can be amended with simple majority while some require special majority.

14. Which of the following writs means ‘to be informed’?

[A] Quo-Warranto
[B] Prohibition
[C] Mandamus
[D] Certiorari

Answer: D [Certiorari]

Notes: Certiorari means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court asking to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter in a case. It is usually issued in case of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction exercised by the lower court, or an error of law.

15. Which Part and Article deals with amendment to the Constitution of India?

[A] Part XX, Article 368
[B] Part XXI, Article 369
[C] Part XXII, Article 393
[D] None of the above

Answer: A [Part XX, Article 368]

Notes: The powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure is enumerated in Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution. It states that the Parliament may amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.

16. On whose advice the President can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance?

[A] Prime Minister
[B] Vice-President
[C] Council of Ministers
[D] On his own will

Answer: C [Council of Ministers]

Notes: The President has the power to withdraw an ordinance at any time. However, this power of ordinance-making is not a discretionary power. He can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the prime minister.

17. How many electors are needed for nomination of a candidate for election to the office of Vice-President?

[A] 10
[B] 20
[C] 30
[D] 50

Answer: B [20]

Notes: The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of Vice-President must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders according to the Constitution of India.

18. Who decides the salary and allowances of the Prime Minister?

[A] By Parliament
[B] By Lok Sabha
[C] By Rajya Sabha
[D] By Council of Ministers

Answer: A [By Parliament]

Notes: The salary and allowances of the Prime Minister of India are determined by the Parliament from time to time. He gets the same salary and allowances that are payable to a member of Parliament, in India.

19. How many Departmentally-Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) were created on the recommendation of the Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha in 1993?

[A] 17
[B] 18
[C] 21
[D] 25

Answer: A [17]

Notes: The Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha recommended for the creation of 17 Departmentally-Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) in the Parliament in 1993. However, in 2004 seven more such committees were formed, thus increasing their number from 17 to 24.

20. In how many states the government headed by Morarji Desai imposed President’s Rule in 1977?

[A] 6
[B] 7
[C] 8
[D] 9

Answer: D [9]

Notes: In 1977 after the internal emergency, the ruling Congress Party lost and the Janta Party came to power. The then Prime Minister Morarji Desai imposed President’s Rule in nine states (where the Congress Party was in power) on the ground that the assemblies in those states no longer represented the wishes of the electorate.

21. .In which chapter of the Model Code of Conduct the rules that political parties must follow while making poll-time promises in their election manifestos are enumerated?

[A] Chapter V
[B] Chapter VI
[C] Chapter VII
[D] Chapter VIII

Answer: D [Chapter VIII]

Notes: The chapter VIII of the Model Code of Conduct contains the rules that political parties must follow while making poll-time promises in their election manifestos. It is titled ‘Guidelines on Election Manifestos’.

22. The chairman of Union Public Service Commission submits his resignation to?

[A] Chief Justice of India
[B] President
[C] Vice-President
[D] Prime Minister

Answer: B [President]

Notes: The chairman and members of Union Public Service Commission can relinquish their offices at any time by addressing their resignation to the president. They can also be removed before the expiry of their term by the president in the manner as provided in the Constitution of India.

23. Which articles of the Constitution contain provisions with regard to all-India services, Central services and state services?

[A] Articles 308 to 314
[B] Articles 315 to 318
[C] Articles 320 to 325
[D] Articles 357 to 378

Answer : A [Articles 308 to 314]

Notes: The Articles 308 to 314 in part XIV of the Constitution of India contain provisions with regard to all-India services, Central services and state services.

24. The Central Information Commission falls under which of the following ministries?

[A] Ministry of Finance
[B] Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
[C] Ministry of Home Affairs
[D] Ministry of Personnel

Answer: D [Ministry of Personnel]

Notes: The Central Information Commission falls under Ministry of Personnel. It is a high-powered independent body which inter alia looks into the complaints made to it and decide the appeals.

25. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in which year?

[A] 1962
[B] 1963
[C] 1964
[D] 1965

Answer: C [1964]

Notes: The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in the year 1964. It was established on the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).

26. How many seats are reserved for women on the board of every co-operative society?

[A] 1
[B] 2
[C] 3
[D] 5

Answer: B [2]

Notes:
The legislature of the state has the power to provide for the reservation of one seat for the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes and two
seats for women on the board of every co-operative society in India having members from such a category of persons.

27. The Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND) was set up by the Government of India in which year?

[A] 2004
[B] 2005
[C] 2006
[D] 2007

Answer: A [2004]

Notes: The Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND) was set by the Government on 18 November 2004. It is the central national agency responsible for receiving, processing, analyzing and disseminating information relating to suspect financial transactions.

28. The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits and services) Act was enacted in which year?

[A] 2016
[B] 2017
[C] 2018
[D] 2019

Answer: A [2016]

Notes: The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and other Subsidies, benefits and services) Act was enacted in the year 2016. Its purpose was to provide legal backing to the Aadhaar unique identification number project.

29. Right to vote is a__:

[A] Political right
[B] Civil right
[C] Economic right
[D] Legal right

Answer: A [Political right]

Notes: Political Equality means granting equal citizenship to all members of the state, and also, to ensure conditions that allow the citizens to participate in the affairs of the state. Political equality brings along with it certain rights such as right to vote, right to contest elections, right to criticize the government etc.

30. According to Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, under which section is mob lynching penalized?

[A] Section 148
[B] Section 103
[C] Section 223
[D] Section 177

Answer: B [Section 103]

Notes: Section 103 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita addresses Mob Lynching. It penalizes mob lynching, defining it as murder or grievous hurt by five or more individuals based on identity markers like race, caste, or belief. The punishments under this section range from life imprisonment to the death sentence. This section was incorporated to combat the rise in mob violence and ensure justice for victims.